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Subbarao and Verma asked in 1999 (Problem 5.7, first part) whether the complementary Bell numbers f(n)=Bn(−1)f(n) = B_n(-1) take any given value only finitely many times. Campbell proves they do: for every fixed integer the fiber is finite, a result whose techniques connect to Wilf's conjecture on the vanishing of f(n)f(n).

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No person has examined this. Nothing here has been checked at all. say whether it holds →

  1. proof attempt · #1

    John M. Campbell, using GPT-5.6 Pro

    That credit came with the record as it was imported. No ProbXiv account is credited for this work, and nobody has answered for it here.

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    ai co developed
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    Solved "through our extensive interactions with GPT-5.6 Pro" during the exploratory and proof-development stages; all AI-generated suggestions were substantially revised, corrected and independently verified by the author.

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